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Medical Quiz

DermaDiagnosis
July, 2008

A 63-year-old man is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a nonpainful condition involving his left thumbnail. The problem began six months ago and has persisted despite numerous attempts at treatment, the most recent of which involved a two-month course of oral terbinafine (250 mg). The terbinafine made no difference; neither had previous courses of oral antibiotics (cephalexin on at least two occasions, as well as sulfa-trimethoprim) or use of topical medications (triple antibiotic ointment, mupirocin).

 

The patient denies any recent trauma to this digit and also says he is not diabetic. There is no history of similar problems with other nails; his dermatologic history includes basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas of the face, ears, and neck. He is not atopic.

 

On examination, a highly dystrophic left thumbnail is noted. The nail is severely onycholytic, with fairly dramatic redness and edema of the cuticular skin. The entire perionychial region is edematous but not hot or tender to even the deepest palpation. A scant amount of pus can be expressed from the lateral subungual space. No other nails are abnormal in appearance, and there are no signs of other skin disease, such as psoriasis. The patient is well known to the dermatologic provider because of his history of nonmelanoma skin cancer.

 

A sample of the subungual pus is taken and submitted for bacterial, acid-fast bacilli, and fungal cultures. Pending those results, a radiologic study of the underlying bony structures is obtained and shows no pathologic findings.


At this point, the differential should include all of the following except:





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Which of the following is NOT in the differential for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?



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