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Medical Quiz

DermaDiagnosis
May, 2008

A 90-year-old woman is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a lesion on her leg that she first noticed four months ago and that has grown quite rapidly. Also, several smaller but otherwise similar lesions have manifested elsewhere on the patient’s body. The lesions, though asymptomatic, concern the patient.

 

Medical history is significant for colon cancer that was resected four years previously without sequelae. During the course of that disease, the patient received a blood transfusion. Otherwise, she claims to be in “excellent” health and is taking no prescription medications regularly. The patient is of Scottish-Irish descent and has no family history of skin disease.

 

On examination, the patient looks younger than her stated age but is quite obese. The main lesion in question is a 3-cm firm, exophytic, uniformly purple nodule arising from the surface of the upper medial right leg, with no surrounding erythema or tenderness. No nodes can be palpated in the inguinal area. Three smaller versions of her leg lesion are seen on the dorsum of the right hand and on the opposite leg. All other areas, including the oral mucosa, are free of lesions. No masses, organomegaly, or tenderness is noted during the abdominal exam.

 

Blood work reveals normal results on a white blood cell count with differential. Excisional biopsy results show, among other things, pleomorphic spindle cells, a high mitotic rate, and multiple slit-like vascular channels. Further testing of the tissue rules out melanoma but shows uniformly positive staining with antibodies to human herpes-virus 8 (HHV 8).


Given the above information, the most likely diagnostic explanation for these lesions is:





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Which of the following is NOT in the differential for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?



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