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Medical Quiz

DermaDiagnosis
December, 2011

A 44-year-old man presents with an asymptomatic rash that manifested several weeks ago. His primary care provider called it “ringworm,” but it has been unresponsive to topical antifungal creams, including clotrimazole and tolnaftate. The patient also sought evaluation in an urgent care setting, where the provider diagnosed “psoriasis” and prescribed triamcinolone, which didn’t seem to help.

 

Additional history taking reveals that, two weeks before the lesions appeared, the patient received a diagnosis of strep throat and subsequently was treated with amoxicillin. The patient is otherwise healthy, taking no medications regularly.

 

On examination, the rash is quite striking—brightly erythematous, with annular margins on which the skin is red. But just behind the advancing margin is a parallel band of scaling. At its largest dimension, the papulosquamous patch is slightly in excess of 8 cm. Microscopic examination of scrapings from the lesion’s scale is negative for fungal elements. The rest of the patient’s skin, with particular attention to the feet and groin, is well within normal limits.

 

Punch biopsy of the lesion shows intense lymphohistiocytic cuffing around superficial and deep dermal vessels, with no epidermal involvement. Stains for fungal elements are negative.

 


Given this information, the most likely diagnosis is:





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Which of the following is NOT in the differential for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?



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