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Medical Quiz

DermaDiagnosis
June, 2011

An 18-year-old man is referred to dermatology for evaluation of an asymptomatic lesion that has been present on his left inner thigh for several months. The lesion has persisted despite the use of a topical cream containing clotrimazole and betamethasone (applied twice daily for a week) and a subsequent 10-day course of oral terbinafine (250 mg/d). Neither treatment seems to have had any impact.

 

There is no history of antecedent trauma. The patient and his family report that no other lesions have been noted and that the patient is quite healthy in other respects. However, there is a family history of melanoma, which has caused the parents more than a little concern.

 

Examination reveals a 3-cm reddish brown polygonal macule with a darker center, located on the left inner thigh. The lesion is neither palpable nor blanchable with digital pressure. No such lesions are seen elsewhere on the patient’s body.


The next step in dealing with this lesion should be to:





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Which of the following is NOT in the differential for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?



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