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Medical Quiz

DermaDiagnosis
December, 2009

For five years, a 12-year-old boy has had an expanding, asymptomatic lesion on his left thigh and knee. There was no known precipitating event—no trauma or insect bite. No other areas are involved. The boy’s health is otherwise good.

 

On examination, a 20 x 10–cm “lesion” is noted on the left medial thigh and knee. The entire area is surprisingly firm to the touch and is brownish blue, with a sclerotic look and feel. There is a central area of depression that, at its deepest, is at least 2 cm lower than the surrounding skin. The area is covered by a cicatricial fusiform plaque measuring 8 x 3 cm. The overlying skin is remarkably smooth. The courses of the subcutaneous venous plexus can be easily traced through the atrophic skin. The pathologic process covers the medial thigh, crosses the joint, and is (based on the history) extending inferiorly in a somewhat linear configuration. No other areas of involvement are appreciated, and the patient’s skin is otherwise normal.

 

In an effort to avoid the creation of a nonhealing wound, a 5-mm punch biopsy is performed on the wall of the depressed area, avoiding the central cicatricial portion. The results are as follows: thickening and homogenization of collagen bundles concentrated in the lower reticular dermis.


It therefore seems clear that the diagnosis is morphea. Which of the following statements about this condition is false?





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