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Medical Quiz

DermaDiagnosis
November, 2009

A 47-year-old woman presents with a lesion that first appeared on her arm two months ago. The lesion has grown increasingly tender and large and has persisted despite a course of antibiotics (cephalexin 500 mg qid for 10 days).

 

She denies any history of similar problems but does relate a 20-year history of Crohn’s disease. She was recently hospitalized for care of her Crohn’s-related pyoderma gangrenosum, which occured on her legs. Despite all this, the patient otherwise feels well, reporting no fever or malaise.

 

Examination reveals a woman who looks her stated age, with a 2.5-cm brownish red round plaque located on the dorsal right forearm. Little if any erythema extends beyond the sharply defined border. The surface of the plaque looks slightly blistery, but on palpation the lesion feels solid and not fluid filled. It is moderately tender to touch and much warmer than the surrounding skin. No lymph nodes can be palpated in either epitrochlear or axillary areas, and no similar lesions are seen elsewhere.


A 5-mm punch biopsy is performed on the lesion. The results show a dense neutrophilic infiltrate, accentuated on the dermal papillae. Given these facts, the most likely diagnosis is:





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